ISTQB Foundation Practice Exam

Instructions: Select exactly one answer (A–D) for each question. When you’re done, click Show Answer Key to reveal the correct answers. Use this solely for self-study; it is not an official ISTQB exam.

Question 1

Which statement BEST describes the purpose of testing?

A. To prove the software is free of defects
B. To evaluate quality and reduce the risk of failure
C. To show the software meets all customer expectations
D. To detect all possible failures before release

Question 2

What is the MAIN difference between testing and debugging?

A. Testing finds defects; debugging removes them
B. Testing removes defects; debugging finds them
C. Both find defects, but only debugging verifies the fix
D. Debugging is part of static testing

Question 3

Which of the following is a WHY test is needed?

A. Testing provides information to stakeholders
B. Testing proves the software is correct
C. Testing guarantees risk mitigation
D. Testing increases project documentation

Question 4

Which of the following is a principle of testing?

A. Testing can show the presence of defects, not their absence
B. Exhaustive testing is preferred
C. Defects are randomly distributed
D. Testing should only occur at the end

Question 5

Which describes shift-left testing?

A. Running tests on finished software
B. Increasing test automation
C. Performing testing earlier in the lifecycle
D. Increasing exploratory testing

Question 6

Which test level focuses on verifying interactions between units?

A. Component testing
B. Integration testing
C. System testing
D. Acceptance testing

Question 7

User acceptance testing is primarily focused on:

A. Code coverage
B. Contractual compliance
C. Business process validation
D. Performance under load

Question 8

Which test type determines how well the system performs under stress?

A. Functional testing
B. Performance testing
C. Usability testing
D. Portability testing

Question 9

In Agile, who is primarily responsible for ensuring product quality?

A. Tester
B. Product Owner
C. Whole team
D. Scrum Master

Question 10

What is the main purpose of a retrospective?

A. Prioritize user stories
B. Improve the team’s processes
C. Demo features to stakeholders
D. Estimate testing effort

Question 11

Which is a benefit of static testing?

A. Finds defects earlier at lower cost
B. Ensures executable code is error-free
C. Reduces need for reviews
D. Ensures compliance with test coverage

Question 12

Which review type is the MOST formal?

A. Walkthrough
B. Inspection
C. Technical review
D. Informal review

Question 13

A defect is discovered during testing. What is the FIRST step in the defect lifecycle?

A. Reopen
B. Assigned
C. New/Submitted
D. Fixed

Question 14

Which is TRUE about test conditions?

A. They are the smallest testable parts of the system
B. They represent what to test, not how
C. They include detailed test scripts
D. They are only used in Agile

Question 15

What is the purpose of a test completion report?

A. Describes test cases in detail
B. Summarizes testing activities and results
C. Lists unresolved defects only
D. Approves the product for release

Question 16

Which metric helps evaluate test progress?

A. Customer satisfaction
B. Executed test cases vs. planned
C. Number of user stories created
D. Developer productivity

Question 17

Equivalence Partitioning divides inputs into:

A. Pairs of values that produce similar output
B. Groups expected to behave similarly
C. Boundary conditions at the edges
D. Decision rules

Question 18

Which is the correct Boundary Value Analysis for an input range 1–100 (inclusive)?

A. 0, 1, 100, 101
B. 1, 50, 100
C. 2, 99
D. 0, 50, 101

Question 19

State transition testing is MOST useful for:

A. Form validation
B. Menu navigation
C. Systems with behavior dependent on previous states
D. Data input constraints

Question 20

A decision table is MOST effective when:

A. Many combinations of conditions exist
B. Boundaries must be tested
C. System behavior is sequential
D. Exploratory testing is required

Question 21

Which technique is black-box?

A. Statement coverage
B. Path coverage
C. State transition testing
D. Branch coverage

Question 22

Which technique is white-box?

A. Boundary value analysis
B. Decision tables
C. State transition
D. Condition coverage

Question 23

A tester executes tests without documentation or scripts. This is:

A. Ad-hoc
B. Scripted
C. Exploratory testing
D. Monkey testing

Question 24

What is risk-based testing?

A. Testing all high-priority defects first
B. Designing tests based on probability and impact
C. Assigning testers based on skills
D. Testing only critical modules

Question 25

Which BEST describes regression testing?

A. Testing new functionality
B. Testing unchanged areas to detect side effects
C. Testing business workflows
D. Testing performance after changes

Question 26

A build is automatically created and deployed to a shared environment every time code is merged. This is:

A. Continuous Deployment
B. Shift-right testing
C. Continuous Integration
D. Waterfall

Question 27

The main purpose of test automation is to:

A. Reduce testing staff
B. Increase speed and repeatability
C. Replace all manual testing
D. Increase documentation

Question 28

A good test case should be:

A. Complex and thorough
B. Repeatable and traceable
C. Written only by senior testers
D. Long and descriptive

Question 29

A tester identifies a defect but cannot reproduce it. The BEST action is to:

A. Close the defect
B. Mark as duplicate
C. Provide detailed environment and steps
D. Assign severity 1

Question 30

What is a KEY characteristic of good requirements?

A. Ambiguous
B. Complete and testable
C. Written in technical language
D. Assumes tester knowledge

Question 31

Which is a trigger for maintenance testing?

A. Initial system release
B. Changes, defects, or environment updates
C. Reviewing requirements
D. Writing test cases

Question 32

Which document maps test cases to requirements?

A. Test summary report
B. Traceability matrix
C. Defect report
D. Test charter

Question 33

Which defect severity/priority pairing is valid in real projects?

A. High severity, low priority
B. Low severity, high priority
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

Question 34

In the ISTQB test process, test data preparation is mainly part of:

A. Test planning
B. Test design
C. Test implementation
D. Test completion

Question 35

Which is an example of a test oracle?

A. Expected results
B. Test scripts
C. Test environment
D. Test logs

Question 36

In the V-Model, system testing validates against:

A. Code
B. Component design
C. Requirements
D. Architecture

Question 37

Which is true about independent testing?

A. Reduces objectivity
B. Increases bias
C. Detects more defects due to fresh perspective
D. Eliminates need for developers to test

Question 38

A tester designs tests before coding begins. This is:

A. Retrospective testing
B. Static testing
C. Early test design
D. Post-implementation testing

Question 39

Which statement supports the defect clustering principle?

A. Most defects are found in a few modules
B. Defects are evenly distributed
C. The more you test, the fewer defects you find
D. Testing is context dependent

Question 40

Which principle describes diminishing returns from repeating the same tests?

A. Absence-of-errors fallacy
B. Early testing
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Defect clustering

Answer Key

Q1 – B
Q2 – A
Q3 – A
Q4 – A
Q5 – C
Q6 – B
Q7 – C
Q8 – B
Q9 – C
Q10 – B
Q11 – A
Q12 – B
Q13 – C
Q14 – B
Q15 – B
Q16 – B
Q17 – B
Q18 – A
Q19 – C
Q20 – A
Q21 – C
Q22 – D
Q23 – C
Q24 – B
Q25 – B
Q26 – C
Q27 – B
Q28 – B
Q29 – C
Q30 – B
Q31 – B
Q32 – B
Q33 – C
Q34 – C
Q35 – A
Q36 – C
Q37 – C
Q38 – C
Q39 – A
Q40 – C

40-Question Foundation Exam

Answer Key