ISTQB Foundation Practice Exam – 40 Questions (Set 2)

Question 1

Which of the following BEST describes a failure?

A. A human action that produces an incorrect result
B. A flaw in a component or system that can cause it to behave incorrectly
C. The manifestation of a defect during execution of the software
D. The root cause of an incident in the code

Question 2

Which factor is a ROOT cause of defects?

A. Incorrect requirements understanding by a developer
B. System crash observed during testing
C. Test environment misconfiguration found in execution
D. Defect report raised by a tester

Question 3

Which statement is TRUE about the relationship between testing and quality assurance (QA)?

A. Testing and QA are synonyms and always performed by the same people
B. Testing is a QA activity focused on evaluating product quality
C. QA is a subset of testing activities done at the end of a project
D. QA only focuses on process metrics, not testing

Question 4

Which of the following is a typical OBJECTIVE of testing in a maintenance release?

A. To verify existing functionality was not adversely affected by changes
B. To redesign the architecture to reduce technical debt
C. To re-write all test cases to align with new standards
D. To eliminate all known defects before release

Question 5

In the software development lifecycle, what is the main benefit of testing early?

A. It guarantees that all defects will be removed before coding starts
B. It reduces the impact and cost of defects found later in the lifecycle
C. It eliminates the need for any reviews or inspections
D. It allows the team to skip system testing activities

Question 6

Which lifecycle model emphasizes delivering software in small, incremental releases with frequent feedback?

A. Waterfall model
B. V-Model
C. Iterative and incremental model
D. Big-bang model

Question 7

Which test level is MOST likely to include tests based on business processes and end-to-end workflows?

A. Component testing
B. Integration testing
C. System testing
D. Component integration testing

Question 8

Which of the following is TYPICALLY a trigger for acceptance testing to begin?

A. Unit testing has started for critical modules
B. Requirements specification has been baselined
C. System testing has been completed with acceptable results
D. Exploratory tests have been performed by the testers

Question 9

Which test type focuses on how easy it is for users to learn and operate the software?

A. Performance testing
B. Usability testing
C. Security testing
D. Compatibility testing

Question 10

Which is MOST likely to be a non-functional test objective?

A. Verify that a user can reset their password
B. Check that response time is below 2 seconds for 500 concurrent users
C. Verify that invoices can be generated as PDF
D. Check that the system prevents saving empty required fields

Question 11

Which is a TRUE statement about static testing vs. dynamic testing?

A. Dynamic testing is performed without executing code and static testing requires execution
B. Static testing may find defects earlier by analyzing work products without executing them
C. Static testing is only used in Agile, dynamic only in Waterfall
D. Dynamic testing replaces the need for static testing

Question 12

Which work product is typically reviewed during a formal inspection?

A. System build script only
B. Source code, requirements, or design documents
C. Defect reports after testing is complete
D. Only user manuals and training materials

Question 13

In a formal review, who is responsible for moderating the review session and keeping it on track?

A. Author
B. Moderator
C. Recorder (Scribe)
D. Manager

Question 14

Which statement BEST describes a walkthrough compared to an inspection?

A. A walkthrough is more formal than an inspection with strictly defined roles
B. In a walkthrough, the author typically leads the review and may use scenarios or examples
C. Walkthroughs require completion of a checklist and pre-defined entry criteria
D. Inspections never produce any documented findings

Question 15

Which activity is part of the TEST IMPLEMENTATION phase in the ISTQB test process?

A. Defining the test strategy and approach for the project
B. Writing and prioritizing test conditions and test cases
C. Creating test suites and organizing test cases into execution order
D. Producing the test summary report for stakeholders

Question 16

Which is a COMMON exit criterion for a test level?

A. All possible test cases have been executed at least once
B. A specified coverage metric has been achieved and critical defects are resolved
C. Each tester has found at least one defect per day
D. Test execution has lasted exactly four weeks

Question 17

A system accepts ages from 0 to 120 inclusive. Using Equivalence Partitioning, which is a VALID set of partitions for input age?

A. < 0, 0–60, 61–120, > 120
B. < 0, 0–120, > 120
C. 0–18, 19–65, 66–120
D. 0–120 only

Question 18

For the same age field (0–120 inclusive), which of the following is a CORRECT set of boundary values for BVA (Boundary Value Analysis)?

A. -1, 0, 1, 119, 120, 121
B. 0, 60, 120
C. -10, 0, 120, 130
D. 1, 2, 119, 120

Question 19

Given the following decision table for a login system, which rule grants access?

Conditions:
C1: Username valid? (Y/N)
C2: Password valid? (Y/N)

Actions:
A1: Access granted
A2: Access denied

A. C1 = Y, C2 = N → A1
B. C1 = N, C2 = Y → A1
C. C1 = Y, C2 = Y → A1
D. C1 = N, C2 = N → A1

Question 20

State transition testing would be MOST appropriate for which of the following systems?

A. A financial report generator that runs once a month on static data
B. A vending machine that behaves differently depending on current credit and product selection
C. A static web page with only informational content
D. A single function that calculates tax based on price

Question 21

Which coverage measure is a white-box test coverage metric?

A. Requirements coverage
B. Decision coverage (branch coverage)
C. Equivalence partition coverage
D. Use case coverage

Question 22

Which is the PRIMARY advantage of using black-box test design techniques?

A. They focus on code structure and optimize internal paths
B. They can be applied before the system is implemented, based on requirements and specifications
C. They ensure that all lines of code are executed at least once
D. They remove the need for traceability to requirements

Question 23

Which of the following BEST describes exploratory testing in Agile teams?

A. Unplanned testing performed only at the end of the release cycle
B. Simultaneous learning, test design, and test execution driven by charters
C. Testing where every step is pre-scripted in detail beforehand
D. Testing performed only by business stakeholders, not testers

Question 24

What is the main driver for selecting tests in risk-based testing?

A. Personal preference of the test manager
B. Areas with the highest estimated product and project risks
C. Components with the lowest number of users
D. Requirements that are easiest to test first

Question 25

Which BEST describes confirmation testing (re-testing)?

A. Testing related areas that may be affected by a change
B. Testing the same tests again after a defect is reportedly fixed
C. Testing to confirm performance requirements are met
D. Testing done by users to confirm the system meets their needs

Question 26

In DevOps, continuous testing primarily aims to:

A. Run tests only at the end of the deployment pipeline
B. Provide rapid feedback on quality throughout the delivery pipeline
C. Eliminate the need for human testers entirely
D. Allow developers to deploy directly to production without tests

Question 27

Which factor MOST strongly influences whether a test case is a good candidate for automation?

A. The test is executed frequently and is stable over time
B. The test requires subjective evaluation of user interface aesthetics
C. The test covers a one-time migration activity
D. The test is very complex with many manual environment steps

Question 28

Which item is typically included in a test plan according to ISTQB?

A. Detailed design of modules and classes
B. Scope of testing, test objectives, and test schedule
C. Source code for the automated test harness
D. Change requests raised by users

Question 29

A test progress report typically includes which of the following information?

A. Root cause of all defects discovered in the last year
B. Number of tests executed, passed, failed, and blocked
C. Exact release date of the next project phase
D. Detailed salary information of all team members

Question 30

Which option BEST describes traceability between test cases and requirements?

A. A many-to-many relationship where one test may cover several requirements and vice versa
B. A strict one-to-one relationship between each requirement and test case
C. Only non-functional requirements need to be traceable to tests
D. Traceability is optional and not helpful to stakeholders

Question 31

A tester reports that the system crashes when submitting an order with an empty shopping cart. In the defect lifecycle, what is the NEXT state after the defect has been successfully fixed and retested by the tester?

A. New
B. Deferred
C. Closed
D. Rejected

Question 32

Which statement about severity and priority is MOST accurate?

A. Severity indicates business impact; priority indicates technical impact
B. Severity is about the effect on the system; priority is about the urgency of fixing the defect
C. Severity and priority are always identical for any given defect
D. Priority is assigned by testers; severity is assigned by project managers

Question 33

Which activity is part of TEST COMPLETION according to the ISTQB test process?

A. Designing new test cases for the next release
B. Archiving testware and handing over testware to maintenance teams
C. Preparing the initial test strategy for the project
D. Setting up the test environment and tools

Question 34

Which of the following is a limitation or risk of using metrics in testing?

A. Metrics always give a complete and accurate view of product quality
B. Metrics can drive wrong behavior if they are misinterpreted or used as targets
C. Metrics cannot be automated and must be gathered manually
D. Metrics are not useful for communicating with stakeholders

Question 35

Which is an example of how a test tool can SUPPORT static testing?

A. By executing unit tests automatically on every commit
B. By performing static code analysis to detect potential defects without execution
C. By generating test data at runtime for performance testing
D. By simulating user load on a web application

Question 36

Which is a POTENTIAL risk of introducing test tools into an organization without proper planning?

A. Improved efficiency of regression testing activities
B. Over-reliance on the tool while neglecting critical exploratory testing
C. Better consistency in test execution
D. More accurate and timely reporting of test results

Question 37

In Agile, which of the following is TRUE about the tester’s role on the team?

A. The tester is solely responsible for quality while developers focus only on coding
B. Testers collaborate with developers and business representatives to prevent defects and improve quality
C. Testers only join the team for the final sprint before release
D. Testers in Agile do not need to write or review test cases

Question 38

Which of the following describes the “Whole-Team Approach” in Agile testing?

A. Testers work independently; developers and product owners are not involved in testing
B. Developers and testers work as a separate team from business stakeholders
C. All Agile team members share responsibility for quality and testing activities
D. Only the Scrum Master is accountable for quality

Question 39

Which testing principle states that different kinds of defects are often concentrated in a small number of modules?

A. Defect clustering
B. Early testing
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Testing shows the presence of defects

Question 40

Which statement BEST describes the “absence-of-errors fallacy” principle?

A. Finding and fixing defects does not help if the system is unusable or does not meet user needs
B. Repeating the same tests will eventually find all defects
C. More testing always results in fewer defects
D. Defects are evenly distributed across all components

40-Question Foundation Exam – Set 2

Answer Key – Set 2